Upsc Prelims question Paper 1993 with answers

Q1 The last in the succession of Jaina Tirthankaras was

(a) Parsvanatha

(b) Rishabha

(c) Mahavira

(d) Manisubrata


Q2 The abolition of the I.A.S. and the I.P.S. has been recommended by the

(a) Dhebar Commission

(b) Kalekar Commission

(c) Kher Commission

(d) Rajamannar Commission


Q3 Which one of the following is the best strategy for environment friendly sustainable development in Indian agriculture?

(a) Expansion of cultivable land, increased use of superphosphate, urea and effective biocides

(b) Wider popularization of high yielding crop varieties, better and more frequent irrigation and increased frequency of aerial sprays of 2/45 inorganic fertilizers and pesticides

(c) Mixed cropping, organic manures, nitrogen fixing plants and pest resistant crop varieties

(d) Improved farm implements and machinery, use of potent insecticides to minimise post harvest grain losses and mono culture cropping practices


Q4 Consider the map given below:


The mean annual rainfall in the shaded parts of India varies from

(a) 100 to 150 cm

(b) 150 to 200 cm

(c) 200 to 250 cm

(d) 250 to 300 cm


Q5 Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Neither the Finance Commission nor the Planning Commission is a constitutional body

(b) The scope of the Finance Commission is limited to a review of the revenue segment of the budget while the Planning Commission takes an overall review embracing both capital and revenue requirements of the States

(c) No one can be a member of both the Finance Commission and the Planning Commission at the same time

(d) There is no overlapping of work and responsibility of the Finance

Commission and those of the Planning Commission


Q6 Assertion (A) : Babur wrote his memoirs in Turki.

Reason (R) : Turki was the official language of the Mughal Court.

In the context of the above two statements which one of the

following is correct ?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true


Q7 The only land locked country in Southeast Asia is

(a) Laos

(b) Thailand

(c) Malaysia

(d) Kampuchea


Q8 The production of cultured pearls is an important cottage industry of

(a) Belgium

(b) West Indies

(c) New Zealand

(d) Japan


Q9 According to the ancient Indian geographical concept, ‘Bharatvarsha’ was a part of

(a) Pushkaradweepa

(b) Jambudweepa

(c) Kraunchadweepa

(d) Kushdweepa


Q10 Even though Pluto is usually the farthest planet, its path is highly elliptical, crossing inside the path of some other planet. As a result for a period of twenty years from 1979, the farthest planet is not Pluto but,

(a) Jupiter

(b) Saturn

(c) Uranus

(d) Neptune


Q11 The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto related to

(a) the Hindu Code Bill

(b) the PEPSU Appropriation Bill

(c) the Indian Post Office (Amendments) Bill

(d) the Dowry Prohibition Bill


Q12 As on today, which one of the following countries has the largest external debt?

(a) India

(b) Brazil

(c) USA

(d) Mexico


Q13 The earliest rockcut caves in western India are those at

(a) Nasik, Ellora and Ajanta

(b) Junnar, Kalyan and Pitalkhora

(c) Ajanta, Bhaja and Kondane

(d) Bhala, Pitalkhora and Kondane


Q14 Consider a specific point on the surface of the earth (say, the city of Delhi). The temperature at a given time of day (say, 12.00 noon) will in general be higher in summer than in winter. This is because

(a) the earth is closer to the sun in summer than in winter

(b) sunrays falling on the earth are inclined more towards the surface of the earth in winter

(c) evaporation of water from atmospheric precipitation occurring in winter alone

(d) the axis of the earth is inclined more towards the sun in winter


Q15 Among the four pairs given below which one consists of a correct combination of dignitaries who became Vice Presidents after having held diplomatic posts like Ambassadors and High Commissioners?

(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan and G.S. Pathak

(b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan and V.V. Giri

(c) Dr. Zakir Hussain and K.R. Narayanan

(d) B.D. Jatti and K.R. Narayanan


Q16 Consider the map given below: The countries marked 1, 2, 3, and 4 in the map respectively represent




(a) Libya, Somalia, Nigeria & Namibia

(b) Egypt, Somalia, Congo and Namibia

(c) Sudan, Ethiopia, Angola and Botswana

(d) Algeria, Kenya, Ghana and Zambia



Q17 The title given by British Government to Mahatma Gandhi which, he surrendered during the Non-Cooperation Movement, was

(a) Hind Kesari

(b) KaisereHind

(c) Rai Bahadur

(d) Rt.Honorable


Q18 The Lifeline Express’ is

(a) the world’s first hospital on rails operating in India

(b) an instrument used for watching the fluctuations in the blood

pressure of a patient under general anaesthesia

(c) a deaddiction programme to save drug addicts

(d) a popular health magazine founded by Ramnath Goenka


Q19 When partial convertibility obtains the exchange rate is

(a) a weighted average

(b) a simple average

(c) fully floating

(d) fully administered


Q20 Which one of the following is a monument constructed by Sher Shah?

(a) KilaKuhna Mosque at Delhi

(b) Atala Masjid at Jaunpur

(c) Bara Sona Masjid at Gaur

(d) Quwwatul Islam Mosque at Delhi


Q21 Which one of the following shows the descending order of the four metropolitan cities in the Indian, subcontinent in so far as their population strength is concerned?

(a) Bombay, Calcutta, Dhaka, New Delhi

(b) Bombay, Calcutta, New Delhi, Karachi

(c) Bombay, Calcutta, Karachi, New Delhi

(d) Calcutta, Bombay, Dhaka, Karachi


Q22 The New Population Bomb refers to

(a) an increase in the population of the aged in the Third World

(b) rapidly growing urban population in the Third World

(c) large scale distress migration in the Third World

(d) deluge of Soviet emigrants


Q23 During 1992-93 there was a record bumper in

(a) rice

(b) sugarcane

(c) pulses

(d) oil seeds


Q24 The term nishka, which meant an ornament in the Vedic period, was used in later times to denote a/an

(a) weapon

(b) agricultural implement

(c) script

(d) coin


Q25 The Chief Minister of a State In India is NOT eligible to vote in the Presidential election if

(a) he himself is a candidate

(b) he is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the State legislature

(c) he is a member of the Upper House of the State legislature

(d) he is a caretaker Chief Minister


Q26 Given below is a diary of disasters involving hazardous chemicals. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

(a) 1959, Minamata/Nigiata, Japan: Leakage at pesticide plant

(b) 1976, Sevesor Italy: Mercury discharged into waterways

(c) 1984, Bhopal, India: Leakage of dioxin

(d) 1987, Kotka, Finland: Mono chlorobenzene split In harbour


Q27 Among the four house types shown below, which one

represents the house type of the Pygmies?



Q28 Which one of the following pairs of kings of ancient and medieval periods of Indian history and the works authored by them is correctly matched?

(a) Krishnadevaraya : Samaranganasutradhara

(b) Mahendravarman : Mattavilasaprahasana

(c) Mahendravarman : Mattavilasaprahasana

(d) Somesvara : Amuktamalayada


Q29 The growth rate of which one of the following sectors has very low employment elasticity?

(a) Manufacturing

(b) Construction

(c) Financial services

(d) Mixed farming


Q30 Which one of the following is considered to be the world’s greatest iconographical creations made by the sthapatis of south India, particularly during the Chola period?

(a) Mahishasuramardini

(b) Nataraja

(c) Rama

(d) Somaskanda


Q31 The dispute regarding East Timor is between

(a) Japan and Russia

(b) China and Philippines

(c) Indonesia and Malaysia

(d) Australia and Indonesia


Q32 Which one of the following provides the correct sequence of occurence of four towns/cities as one proceeds from west to east?

(a) Rajkot, Baroda, Kharagpur, Bilaspur

(b) Bikaner, Aligarh, Darbhanga, Nowgong

(c) Indore, Rourkela, Agartala, Jamshedpur

(d) Nasik, Aurangabad, Berhampur, Nanded


Q33 Which one of the following types of borrowings from the IMF has the softest servicing conditions?

(a) Second tranche loan

(b) SAF

(c) ESAF

(d) Oil Facility


Q34 The Buddhist sect Mahayana formally came into existence during the reign of

(a) Ajatashatru

(b) Ashoka

(c) Dharmapala

(d) Kanishka


Q35 The book The Man who knew Infinity by Robert Kanigel, published in 1991, and extensively reviewed in newspapers in India is the biography of

(a) Vikram Sarabhai

(b) Homi Bhabha

(c) Sir C.V. Raman

(d) Srinivasa Ramanujan


Q36 Which one of the following is correctly matched?

Countries Purpose for which the U.N. Peace Keeping Force is maintained

(a) Lebanon For supervising the 1992 accord

(b) El Salvador To deliver humanitarian aid

(c) Mozambique To supervise a referendum

(d) Cyprus To maintain peace between the two dominant ethnic groups in the country


Q37 In India the Public Sector is most dominant in

(a) steel production

(b) organised termlending financial institutions

(c) transport

(d) commercial banking


Q38 Which of the following were the main objectives of the Khilafat movement?

  1. To rouse anti British feelings among the Muslims of India
  2. To reform the Muslim society

III. To demand separate electorates and preserve the Khilafat

  1. To save the Ottoman empire and preserve the Khilafat.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:


(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(c) III and IV

(d) I and IV


Q39 The earnings of India from diamond export is quite high. Which one of the following factors has contributed to it?

(a) Pre-independence stock piling of diamonds in the country which are now exported

(b) Large production of industrial diamonds in the country

(c) Expertise available for cutting and polishing of imported diamonds which are then exported

(d) As in the past, India produces huge quantity of gem diamonds which are exported


Q40 When the Couple Protection Rate is going up

(a) birth rate must necessarily fall

(b) birth rate will fall only if couples are of younger age

(c) death rate must necessarily fall

(d) infant mortality rate must be falling


Q41 The Swaran Singh Committee considered the Q of

(a) more autonomy to Punjab on the model of Jammu & Kashmir.

(b) the suitability of the Presidential form of government for India.

(c) the precedence of the Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights.

(d) administrative reforms


Q42 In Jainism ‘perfect knowledge’ is referred to as

(a) Jina

(b) ratna

(c) kaivalya

(d) nirvana


Q43 Consider the Climograph given below




The above climograph relates to

(a) Northwestern region of India

(b) Southern region of India

(c) Midcentral region of India

(d) Northeastern region of India




Q44 The Employment Guarantee Scheme, a rural work programme, was first started in

(a) West Bengal

(b) Punjab

(c) Kerala

(d) Maharashtra


Q45 Which one of the following is used for dating archaeological specimens in wood, bones and shells?

(a) Uranium238

(b) Argon isotope

(c) Carbon14

(d) Strontium90


Q46 Chanakya, was also known as

(a) Bhattasvamin

(b) Rajasekhara

(c) Vishnugupta

(d) Visakhadatta


Q47 Which one of the following is the underground army of the African National Congress?

(a) Unkhonto

(b) Kwazulu

(c) Xhosa

(d) Ulundi


Q48 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the

codes given below the lists:

List I List II

  1. Grand Slam A. Chess
  2. Grand Prix B. Polo

III. Grand Master C. Bridge

  1. International race







Q49 A zero rate of Inflation obtains necessarily in a year where the annual rate of inflation

(a) in every week of the year is zero

(b) is falling in every week of the year

(c) is both falling and rising in a year

(d) is constant in every week of the year


Q50 A lot of details, regarding the village administration under the Cholas is provided by the Inscriptions at

(a) Thanjavur

(b) Uraiyur

(c) Kanchipuram

(d) Uttaramerur


Q51 Asokan inscriptions were first deciphered by

(a) Buhler

(b) Robert Sewell

(c) James Prinsep

(d) Codplngton


Q52 Which one of the following sets of economists strongly favoured a market economy?

(a) Adam Smith, Keynes, Hicks

(b) Adam Smith, Marx, Strumlin

(c) Adam Smith, Hayek, Friedman

(d) Adam Smith, Ricardo, J.K. Galbraith


Q53 Which one of the following is correctly matched?

(a) Dr. Kurien : Space Science

(b) Dr. Malcom Adiseshiah : Cooperative Movement

(c) Dr. Abdul Kalam : Development Economics

(d) Dr. Pramod Karan Sethi : Jaipur Foot


Q54 Which of the following places have their standard times, that are the same as GMT?

  1. Accra
  2. Dublin

III. Madrid

  1. Lisbon

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) I, II and III

(b) I, III and IV

(c) I, II and IV

(d) II, III and IV


Q55 Among the four works mentioned below which one is encyclopaedic in nature?

(a) Amarakosa

(b) Siddhantasiromani

(c) Brhat Samhita

(d) Ashtangahrdaya


Q56 Which one of the following is a feature common to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation?

(a) A single citizenship

(b) Three lists in the Constitution

(c) Dual judiciary

(d) A federal Supreme Court to interpret the constitution


Q57 In Mizoram, the settlement pattern is mostly of ‘linear type’ along the ridges, because

(a) the valleys are cooler than the ridges

(b) accessibility is easier on the ridge tops

(c) the ridges are cooler than the valleys

(d) the valleys are densely forested


Q58 In Mughal paintings one notices the adoption of principle of

foreshortening whereby near and distant people and things could be placed in perspective. This was due to the influence of the

(a) British

(b) Dutch

(c) Portuguese

(d) Danish


Q59 Which one of the following is in the Concurrent List in the

Constitution of India?

(a) Population control and family planning

(b) Public health and sanitation

(c) Capitation taxes

(d) Treasure trove


Q60 Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Rationing : Fiscal control

(b) Cash Reserve Ratio : Selective Credit Control

(c) Licensing : Comprehensive Control

(d) Import Quota : Physical control


Q61 Who among the following introduced the famous Persian

Festival of NAUROJ in India?

(a) Balban

(b) Iltutmish

(c) Firuz Tughlaq

(d) Alauddin Khilji


Q62 Among the four political parties listed below, which one was the

last to be formed?

(a) The Conservative Party in Britain

(b) The Democratic Party in U.S.A.

(c) The Republican Party in U.S.A.

(d) The Indian National Congress



Q63 Soils of Western Rajasthan have a high content of

(a) Aluminium

(b) Calcium

(c) Nitrogen

(d) Phosphorus


Q64 Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Courts and the Supreme Court?

(a) Disputes between the Centre and the States

(b) Disputes between the States interse

(c) Protection of the Fundamental Rights

(d) Protection against the violation of the Constitution


Q65 Most Favoured Nations (MFN) clause under GATT implies

(a) most favour to some countries

(b) most favour to all countries

(c) no favour to any country

(d) no favour to some countries


Q66 Consider the following passage:

“In the course of a career on the road spanning almost thirty years, he crossed the breadth of the Eastern hemisphere, visited territories equivalent to about 44 modern countries, and put behind him a total

distance of approximately 73,000 miles.” The world’s greatest traveller of premodern times to whom the above passage refers is

(a) Megasthenes

(b) FaHien

(c) Marco Polo

(d) Ibn Battuta


Q67 Which one of the following statements regarding the office of the Speaker is correct ?

(a) He holds office during the pleasure of the President

(b) He need not be a member of the House at the time of his election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his election

(c) He loses his office if the House is dissolved before the end of its normal tenure

(d) If he intends to resign, the letter of his resignation is to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker


Q 68 A rainy day, as defined by the Indian Meteorological department, is a day when the rainfall at a point received is

(a) 0.5 mm to 1 mm in 24 hours

(b) 1.1 mm to 1.5 mm in 24 hours

(c) 1.6 mm to 2 mm in 24 hours

(d) above 2.5 mm in 24 hours


Q69 Which among the following pairs of places have most marked difference in total rainfall per annum even though located approximately along the same latitude?

(a) Bangalore and Madras

(b) Bombay and Visakhapatnam

(c) Ajmer and Shillong

(d) Nagpur and Calcutta


Q70 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using

the codes given below the lists:

List I List II

(Features of the Indian Constitution) (Borrowed from)

  1. Fundamental Rights (A) U.K.
  2. Parliamentary system of Government (B) U.S.A.

III. Emergency provisons (C) Ireland

  1. Directive Principles of State Policy (D) German Reich

(E) Canada







Q71 Which one of the following statements does correctly defines

the term ‘drain theory’ as propounded by Dadabhai Naoroji?

(a) That the resources of the country were being utilised in the interest of Britain

(b) That a part of India’s national wealth or total annual product was being exported to Britain for which India got no material return

(c) That the British Industrialists were being given an opportunity to invest in India under the protection of the imperial power

(d) That the British goods were being imported to the country making it poorer day by day


Q72 The Anti Defection Law was enacted as early as 1979 in

(a) Kerala

(b) Jammu and Kashmir

(c) West Bengal

(d) Tamil Nadu


Q73 Which one of the following is INCORRECT in respect of

Parliamentary Control over the Budget?

(a) Parliament has no say In the preparation of the budget

(b) Parliament has the power to increase expenditure charged on

the Consolidated Fund

(c) Parliament has no power to impose a tax without the President’s recommendation

(d) Parliament has no power to increase a tax without the

President’s recommendation


Q74 The first political organisation established in India in 1838 was known as

(a) British India Society

(b) Bengal British India Society

(c) Settlers Association

(d) Zamindary Association


Q75 Euro dollars are

(a) a currency issued by European Monetary Union

(b) special currency issued by federal government of U.S.A. to be used only in Europe

(c) U.S. dollars circulating In Europe

(d) European currencies exchanged for the U.S. dollar in U.S.


Q76 “Indian cotton merchant; banker; Congressman and a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi.” This description fits

(a) G.D. Birla

(b) M.R. Jayakar

(c) Jamnalal Bajaj

(d) V.S. Srinivasa Sastri


Q77 Assertion (A) : Hong Kong is to revert to China from British Control in a few years.

Reason (R) : The people of Hong Kong have opted for it In a referendum.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the

following is true?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true


Q78 Which one of the following modes of privatisation is the most

comprehensive and complete?

(a) Introduction of private capital in public sector

(b) Contracting out management of public enterprises to the private sector

(c) Transferring ownership and management to the workers

(d) Transferring ownership and management to the private sector


Q79 Mahatma Gandhi was referred to as the ‘Father of the nation’

first by

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Vallabhbhai Patel

(c) C. Rajagopalachari

(d) Subhash Chandra Bose


Q80 Next to Hindi, the language spoken by the largest number of

people in the Indian subcontinent is

(a) Urdu

(b) Telugu

(c) Bengali

(d) Tamil


Q81 Which one of the following was part of the erstwhile Soviet Union over which Kurdish population is spread?

(a) Armenia

(b) Azerbaijan

(c) Georgia

(d) Turkmenistan


Q82 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using

the codes given below the lists:

List I List II

  1. Gro Harlem Brundtland (A) Prime Minister of Slovakia
  2. Stephen Hawking (B) Prime Minister of Russia

III. Vladimir Meciar (C) Environmentalist and Prime Minister of Norway

  1. Viktor Chernomyrdin (D) Cosmologist







Q83 Variable reserve rates and Open Market Operations are

instruments of

(a) Fiscal Policy

(b) Monetary Policy

(c) Budgetary Policy

(d) Trade Policy


Q84 The Ryotwari Settlement was introduced by the British in the

(a) Bengal Presidency

(b) Madras Presidency

(c) Bombay Presidency

(d) Madras and Bombay Presidencies


Q85 The Neyveli thermal power plant is fed by

(a) Gondwana coal

(b) Tertiary coal

(c) Quarternary coal

(d) Cambrian coal


Q86 Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent

Assembly are true?

  1. It was not based on adult franchise.
  2. It resulted from direct elections.

III. It was a multiparty body.

  1. It worked through several committees.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.


(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(c) I and IV

(d) I, II, III and IV


Q87 Which of the following are the main causes of slow rate of growth of per capital income In India?

  1. High capital output ratio
  2. High rate of growth of population

III. High rate of capital formation

  1. High level of fiscal deficits

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(a) I, II, III and lV

(b) II, III and IV

(c) I and IV

(d) I and II


Q88 What is the correct chronological sequence of the following stages in the political life of Mahatama Gandhi?

I Champaran

II Ahmedabad Mill Strike

III Kheda

IV Non Co-operation Movement.

Choose the answer from the codes given below:


(a) II, IV, III, I

(b) I, III, II, IV

(c) IV, III, II, I

(d) III, IV, II, I


Q89 Consider the map given below :


Two tourists, one travelling from Delhi to Karachi and the other to Bhuj, wanted company. The railway Junction up to which they can travel together as shown in the

(a) Phulera

(b) Jodhpur

(c) Luni

(d) Balotra


Q90 Which arrangement of the following show the correct sequence of demographic transition as typically associated with economic development?

  1. High birth rate with high death
  2. Low birth rate with low death

III. High birth rate with low death

Choose the answer from the codes given below :


(a) I, II, III

(b) I, III, II

(c) III, I, II

(d) II, I, III


Q91 The foundation of modern educational system in India was laid by

(a) the Charter Act of 1813

(b) Macaulay’s Minutes of 1835

(c) The Hunter Commission of 1882

(d) Wood’s Despatch of 1854


Q92 Camel uses its hump for

(a) storing water

(b) storing fat

(c) balancing the body during walking in desert sand

(d) temperature regulation


Q93 The basic difference between imperative and indicative planning is that

(a) in the case of the imperative planning the market mechanism is entirely replaced by a command hierarchy, while in the case of indicative planning, it is looked upon as a way to improve the functioning of the market system

(b) In the case of indicative planning there is no need to nationalise any industry

(c) in the case of imperative planning all economic activities belong

to public sector, while in the other type they belong to the private sector

(d) It is easier to achieve targets in imperative type of planning


Q94 Uplift of the backward classes was the main programme of the

(a) Prathana Samaj

(b) Satyashodhak Samaj

(c) Arya Samaj

(d) Ramakrishna Mission


Q95 At the present state of our knowledge and resources position, India will remain selfsufficient for the next three decades in

(a) Tin

(b) Coking Coal

(c) Copper

(d) Petroleum


Q96 The founder of Boys Scouts and Girl Guides Movement in India was

(a) Charles Andrews

(b) Robert Montgomery

(c) Richard Temple

(d) Baden Powel


Q97 Which one of the following monuments figured in the news

recently in connection with a fall of some of its parts and its

consequent archaeological conservation?

(a) Jagannath Temple, Purl

(b) Sun Temple, Konark

(c) Khandariya Mahadeva Temple, Khajuraho

(d) Chaunsat Yogini Temple, Bheraghat


Q98 Who among the following Is NOT associated with medicine in India ?

(a) Dhanvantri

(b) Bhaskaracharya

(c) Charaka

(d) Susruta


Q99 The Government of India has totally banned the export of ‘Burnt Coal’ (Jhama), because it contains recoverable amount of a metal /element used In transistors. Which one is the element ?

(a) Phophorus

(b) Germanium

(c) Silicon

(d) Tungsten


Q100 Which of the following strongly threatens biodiversity ?

(a) Fragile ecosystems such as mangroves and wetlands

(b) Inaccessible habitats in Himalayas

(c) Destruction of natural habitats and vegetation and shifting cultivation

(d) Creation of biosphere reserves


Q101 When there is depletion of ozone in the stratosphere, the wavelength of radiation striking the earth’s surface will be

(a) 107 m

(b) 1010 m

(c) 102 m

(d) 100 m


Q102 The solar eclipse achieves totality only in the limited

geographical regions because

(a) the earth is not a smooth flat surface, but has elevations and depressions

(b) the size of the shadow of the moon on the earth is small compared to the cross section of the earth

(c) the trajectories of the earth around the sun and the moon around the earth are not perfect circles

(d) sun rays can reach most of the peripheral regions of the shadow of the moon due to a atmospheric refraction


Q103 Which one of the diagrams given below represent most

closely the path of geostationary satellite in space?


Q104 Consider the figures of a metal ball and a metal ring given below :


The metal ball can just pass through the hole of a metal ring formed

out of a strip. When the ball is heated it gets stuck. But when the

metal ring is heated,

(a) the ball can still pass through it because the ring diameter

expands on heating

(b) the ball gets stuck because the diameter of the hole decreases

on expansion

(c) the ball will still pass through because the hole diameter does not change

(d) the ball will pass through because there is no change in the ring


Q105 The working of the quartz crystal In the watch is based on the

(a) Photoelectric Effect

(b) Johnson Effect

(c) Piezoelectric Effect

(d) Edison Effect


Q106 Which one of the following is NOT an astronomical object?

(a) Pulsar

(b) Brittle Star

(c) Black hole

(d) Quasar


Q107 The formation of brilliant colours in soap film is a consequence

of the phenomenon of

(a) multiple reflection and interference

(b) multiple refraction and dispersion

(c) diffraction and dispersion

(d) polarisation and interference


Q108 At what temperature are the readings of a Centigrade and

Fahrenheit thermometer the same?

(a) 40

(b) 212

(c) 40

(d) 100


Q109 Acid precipitation is now regarded as a serious problem in

some European and Asian countries. Its major cause or source is

(a) discharge of acidic effluents onto neutral or slightly alkaline land

where the acidic components precipitate

(b) emissions of sulphur oxides and nitrogen oxides from thermal

power plants and burning of fossil fuels; these oxides dissolve in

atmospheric water vapour and fall back on earth as acid rain

(c) natural carbon dioxide released during respiration of living organisms dissolves in water, forming carbonic acid which is the

chief contributor to acidity in rain water

(d) chlorofluorocarbons readily react with various chemicals near the earth’s surface, producing acidic intermediates which cause acid precipitation


Q110 Which one of the following colloidal systems is represented by fog?

(a) Liquid in gas

(b) Gas in liquid

(c) Solid in gas

(d) Liquid in liquid


Q111 Though a few (gasbased) industries have already been established good reserves of natural gas in India remain un-utilised.

This vast resource of natural gas can be used in the production of

(a) fertilizers

(b) carbide

(c) graphite

(d) synthetic petroleum


Q112 Assertions (A) : A mixture of salt and ice gives temperature below 0°C.

Reason (R) : The salt raises the freezing point of ice.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the

following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true


Q113 Vinegar is an aqueous solution of

(a) oxalic acid

(b) citric acid

(c) acetic acid

(d) hydrochloric acid


Q114 The theory of ‘jumping genes’ was propounded by

(a) Gregor Johann Mendel

(b) Thomas Hunt Morgan

(c) Barbara McClintock

(d) Watson and Crick


Q115 Sucrose content in sugarcane decreases

(a) if high rainfall occurs during the period of growth of the plant

(b) if frost occurs during the period of ripening

(c) if there is fluctuation in temperature during the period of growth of

the plant

(d) if there is high temperature during the time of ripening


Q116 Which one of the following is a man made” cereal NOT found

in nature?

(a) Dwarf wheat

(b) Hybrid maize

(c) Triticale

(d) Soya bean


Q117 Sugarcane, sugarbeet, sweetpea, chickpea, pigeonpea and

French bean belong to

(a) two plant families

(b) three plant families

(c) four plant families

(d) five plant families


Q118 A fertilesoil, suitable for growing common crops, is likely to have a pH value of

(a) three

(b) four

(c) six to seven

(d) nine to ten


Q119 If a mouse of over eight times its normal size has been produced by introducing human growth hormone gene, the technique involved is called

(a) Hybridisation

(b) Genetic engineering

(c) Mutation Breeding

(d) Hormonal feeding


Q120 Poison glands of snakes are homologous to

(a) electric organs of fishes

(b) stings of rays

(c) sebaceous glands of mammals

(d) salivary glands of vertebrates


Q121 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the

codes given below the lists:

List I List II

(Characterstics) (Animal)

  1. Wingless insect (A) Kiwi
  2. Flightless bird (B) Silver fish

III. Limbless reptile (C) Turtle

  1. Limbless animal (D) Snake

(E) Fish







Q122 Three communicable diseases prevalent in developing

countries caused by unsafe drinking water and bad sanitation are

(a) acute diarrhoea, cancer and gout

(b) malaria, acute diarrhoea and schistosomiasis

(c) onchocerciasis, leukaemia and arthritis

(d) rheumatism, malaria and AIDS


Q123 Which one of the following approaches comes under the

category of biotechnology?

(a) Use of living organisms or substances obtained from them in industrial processes

(b) Modernizing the commercial industries to produce products for use in biological research

(c) Use of modern technology to investigate biological disorders

(d) Use of industrial technology to increase the biosphere


Q124 Which one of the following seeds can benefit a patient of

diabetes mellitus by normalizing his blood sugar level?

(a) Coriander seeds

(b) Mustard seeds

(c) Cumin seeds

(d) Fenu greek seeds


Q125 Scratching eases itching because

(a) it removes the outer dust in the skin

(b) it kills the germs

(c) it stimulates certain nerves which direct the brain to increase the

production of anti histaminic chemicals

(d) it suppresses the production of enzymes which cause itching



Q126 Haemophilia is a hereditary disease carried by

(a) females and expressed by females

(b) females and expressed by males

(c) males and expressed by females

(d) males and expressed by males


Q127 The blood pressure values of four persons are given below :

  1. Mrs. X : 90/60
  2. Mr. X : 160/120
  3. Mr. Y : 120/80
  4. Mrs. Y : 140/100

Who among the following has normal blood pressure?

(a) Mrs. X

(b) Mr. X

(c) Mrs. Y

(d) Mr. Y


Q128 Biofilms are

(a) colour films used by biologists to photograph living organisms

(b) photo micrographs of microorganisms from various habitats

(c) accumulations of microorganisms at surfaces such as those of a

rock, a tooth or an oil droplet

(d) photographic films made through fermentation processes of

certain industrial micro-organisms


Q129 Which one of the following does provide the best estimate of world’s biological diversity ?

(a) Of about ten million species probably alive today, some 20 species are lost everyday, most of them unknown because no more than half a million have yet been actually identified by scientists

(b) Of about thirty million living species, some 50 are lost everyday, most of them unknown because no more than one million have been actually identified

(c) Of about forty five million living species, some 100 are lest every day, most of them unknown because no more than 1.5 million have been actually identified

(d) Of about seventy five million living species, some 500 are lost every day, most of them unknown because no more than 3 million have been actually identified


Q130 In many developing countries, three major causes of death and disease are

(a) lack of safe drinking water, increasing use of pesticides and

thinning of the ozone layer

(b) contaminated food, global warming and industrial chloro fluorocarbons

(c) polluted air, greenhouse effect and soil erosion

(d) dirty water, contaminated food and polluted air


Q131 In a group of six women there are four dancers, four vocal musicians, one actress and three violinists. Girija and Vanaja are among the violinists while Jalaja and Shailaja do not know how to play on the violin. Shailaja and Tanuja are among the dancers. Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailaja and Tanuja are all vocal musicians and two of them are also violinists. If Pooja is an actress who among the following is both a dancer and a violinists ?

(a) Jalaja

(b) Shailaja

(c) Tanuja

(d) Pooja


Q132 If you are the ninth person in the queue starting from either end, than the number of persons in the queue is

(a) 10

(b) 15

(c) 17

(d) 19


Q133 A father is now three times as old as his son. Five years back,

he was four times as old as his son. The age of the son is

(a) 12 years

(b) 15 years

(c) 18 years

(d) 20 years


Q134 If the product of two numbers is 320 and their ratio is 1 : 5, what is the difference between the squares of these two numbers ?

(a) 1024

(b) 1365

(c) 1536

(d) 1635


Q135 Four equal circles are described at the four corners of a square so that each touches two of the others as shown in the figure The area enclosed by the circumferences of the circles (shaded area in the figure) is 13(5/7) sq. cm. Find the radius of the circles. (Assume = p = 22/7)




(a) 4 cm

(b) 2.5 cm

(c) 7.5 cm

(d) 6 cm



Q136 A rectangular sheet of aluminium foil measuring 5 cm by 10 cm is rolled into a cylinder of height 10 cm. If the cost of painting the cylinder is Rs. 2/per sq cm, then the cost of painting the surface of the cylinder will be

(a) Rs. 400

  1. b) Rs. 200
  2. c) Rs. 150
  3. d) Rs. 100


Q137 In a single throw of a pair of dice, what is the probability of getting a sum of 8 ?














Q138 If ABRA CADABRA is 1, 2, 9, 1 3,1, 4, 1, 2, 9, 1, HOCUS POCUS will be

(a) 5, 6, 3, 7, 816,15, 5, 21, 19

(b) 8, 16, 5, 21, 1916,15, 5, 21, 19

(c) 8, 16, 5, 21, 1915,16, 5, 21, 19

(d) 5, 6, 3, 7, 86,5, 3, 8, 7


Q139 Four persons Alok, Bhupesh, Chandu and Dinesh have a total of Rs. 100/among themselves. Alok and Bhupesh between them have as much money as Chandu and Dinesh between them but Alok has more money than Bhupesh, and Chandu has only half the money that Dinesh has Alok has in fact Rs. 5/more than Dinesh. Who has the most money ?

(a) Alok

(b) Bhupesh

(c) Chandu

(d) Dinesh


Q140 Given below is the performance of two learners A and B


Which one of the following can be deduced from the graph?


(a) The learning task was difficult

(b) B learned faster than A

(c) B learned faster than A throughout the task

(d) A learned faster than B throughout the task


Q141 Consider the Vena diagram given below:


The numbers In the Venn diagram are persons reading the newspapers indicated. The diagram is drawn after surveying 50 persons. In a population of 10,000, how many can be expected to read at least two newspapers ? Choose the correct answer from the

codes given below :

(a) 5000

(b) 6250

(c) 6000

(d) 5400


Q142 In an examination, every candidate took Physics or Mathematics or both 65.8% took Physics and 50.2% took Mathematics. The total number of candidates was 2000. How many took both Mathematics and Physics ?

(a) 750

(b) 700

(c) 550

(d) 500


Q143 A point is selected at random inside a rectangle andperpendiculars are drawn on each side from the point. The sum of these perpendiculars is 24 cm. If the length of the rectangle is 3 times the width, the perimeter of the rectangle will be

(a) 36 cm

(b) 42 cm

(c) 24 cm

(d) 48 cm


Q144 The following table shows the percentage change in the

consumption of electricity by five towns P, Q, R, S and T from 1989 to 1991.


What was the percentage by which the total consumption of

electricity by the five cities changed between 1989 and 1991?

(a) 4

(b) 4.45

(c) 4

(d) Data given are insufficient to answer


Q145 Consider the charts given below :


The given charts depict the price variation in a stock market during a

year. Movement of industrywise average price is plotted for the sectors of iron and steel and petroproducts. Price movements of four companies A and B (iron and steel), C and D (petroproducts) are also plotted. From the curves, a significant feature that can be deducted is

(a) Company C made large profit around June

(b) All share prices will increase steadily in the next year

(c) Company B seems to be performing better than the market average

(d) Petroproducts are performing better than iron and steel


Q146 The monthly incomes of Peter and Paul are in the ratio of 4 : 3. Their expenses are in the ratio of 3 : 2. If each saves Rs. 600 at the end of the month, their monthly incomes respectively are (in rupees)

(a) 3200 and 2400

(b) 2800 and 2100

(c) 2400 and 1800

(d) 2000 and 1500


Q147 A lottery system has ticket numbers with eight digits. There are ten first prizes of Rs. 1.00 lakh each, one hundred second prizes of Rs. 10,000 each and one thousand third prizes of Rs. 1,000 each. At the draw of lots, an eight digit number is generated by choosing for each digit from left to right a random number in the range of 0 to Q. Any one who has a ticket with the first two digits (from left to right) matching, the chosen number gets a first prize, and so on. One individual purchases a large number of tickets at a discounted price of Re. 0.75 each. For how much money should he purchase tickets to achieve a 10% chance of winning a third prize ?

(a) Rs. 10,000

(b) Rs. 75,000

(c) Rs. 1,00,000

(d) Rs. 7,500


Q148 The average salary of skilled employees in a firm is Rs. 520 and that of the unskilled employees is Rs. 420. If the average salary of both the groups of employees is Rs. 500, then the percentage of skilled employees in the firm is

(a) 50

(b) 20

(c) 80

(d) 70


Q 149 Consider the following piecharts ?

The piecharts given here depict the area under cultivation of different cash crops, for two years, 1985 and 1990. Which one of the

following statements is FALSE ?

(a) In 1985, the area under jute cultivation was less than that under rice cultivation

(b) More land was used for growing vegetables in 1990 than in 1985

(c) In 1990, the area under rice and wheat cultivation taken together

was less than half the total cultivation area

(d) The percentage area under Jute cultivation was less in 1985

than in 1990


Q150 The following graph shows the annual sales of a company’s products in millions of rupees. Study the trend and find out which of the following is/ are correct ?


  1. A deliberate attempt has been made to distort the figures in one year.
  2. Some one is interested in misleading the management.

III. The kink in the graph is unexplained.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :


(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) III only

(d) I and III





1.C 2.D 3.C 4.A 5.B 6.C 7.A 8.D 9.B 10.D 11.C 12.B 13.C 14.A 15.A 16.A 17.B 18.A 19.A 20.A 21.B 22.C 23.D 24.D 25.C 26. D 27. A 28. D 29. C 30. B31. C 32. B 33. A 34.D 35.D 36.D 37.A 38.D 39.C 40.B 41.C 42.C 43.C 44.D 45.C 46.C 47.A 48.C 49.A 50.D 51.C 52.D 53.D 54.A 55.A 56.D 57.A 58.C 59.A 60.D 61.A 62.D 63.D 64.C 65.A 66.C 67.D 68.D 69.C 70.C 71.B 72.B 73.B 74.C 75.A 76.C 77.C 78.D 79.D 80.C 81.A 82.D 83.B 84.D 85.B 86.D 87.B 88.B 89.B 90.B 91.B 92.A 93.A 94.B 95.C 96.B 97.A 98.B 99.C 100.C 101.B102.B 103.C 104.A 105.C 106.B 107.B 108.A 109.B 110.A 111.A 112.C 113.C 114.C 115.C 116.C 117.B 118.C 119.B 120.D 121.B 122.B 123.A 124.D 125.C 126.B 127.D 128.C 129.A 130.D 131.C 132.C 133.B 134.C 135.A 136.D 137.D 138.C 139.A 140.C 141.D 142.D 143.D 144.A 145.C 146.C 147.D 148.C 149.D 150.C


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